Mathematics I / Improper Integrals
Practice question · Multiple choice

∫₁^∞ (1/x²) dx converges to 1 while ∫₁^∞ (1/x) dx diverges, although both integrands shrink to zero. Why does going to zero not settle the question?

Hints
  1. Compute both integrals up to a finite limit b, then let b grow.
  2. One gives 1 − 1/b, the other gives ln b. What happens to each?
Show the answer

D. Because what matters is how fast the integrand shrinks.

Why

Evaluate both to b: 1 − 1/b approaches 1, and ln b grows without bound, slowly and without stopping. Shrinking to zero is necessary and not sufficient, and the boundary is sharp, ∫x^(−p) converges exactly when p > 1. It is the harmonic series again, connected directly by the integral test, and it is why Gabriel's horn has infinite area and finite volume.

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