Practice question · Multiple choice
Quantum mechanics predicts probabilities rather than definite outcomes. Why is that regarded as fundamental rather than as ignorance of hidden details?
Hints
- Ask whether the question is even answerable, or purely philosophical.
- What would a theory with definite pre-existing values predict differently?
Show the answer
A. Because Bell's theorem rules out local pre-existing values.
Why
The remarkable thing is that this stopped being philosophy: Bell showed any theory with pre-existing local values must satisfy an inequality, and experiments observe the violations. So hidden variables are excluded unless locality is given up. What remains open is interpretation; what is settled is that the probabilities are not covering a definite local answer.
Practise Mathematical Methods in Physics
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