Practice question · Multiple choice
The fundamental theorem links differentiation and integration as inverses. Why is that surprising given how the two are defined?
Hints
- Write down the two definitions and ask what they have in common.
- Nothing in either definition mentions the other.
Show the answer
D. Because one is local slopes and the other accumulated area
Why
Slope and area have no obvious connection; the theorem asserts one. That is why it converts area problems into antiderivative problems and makes most integrals computable at all.
Practise Fundamental theorem of calculus
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