History II / Carolingian Europe
Practice question · Multiple choice

The Treaty of Verdun in 843 divided the Frankish realm into three separate kingdoms, yet historians caution against reading this as the origin of modern France and Germany. What follows from treating Verdun strictly as a dynastic settlement?

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  1. Why did Frankish kings periodically partition their realms upon succession?
  2. Did ninth-century rulers conceive of political boundaries in terms of modern national identities?
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C. The partition was intended as an estate division rather than nation building

Why

Treating Verdun as a dynastic partition recognises that Frankish rulers viewed territory as a family estate to be shared among male heirs. It did not create fixed ethnic frontiers or abolish the imperial title, which Lothar retained alongside his realm.

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