Law I / The Principle of Legality
Practice question · Multiple choice

Why is it consistent to forbid retroactive criminal law and at the same time apply a later, milder law to conduct already committed?

Hints
  1. Ask whom the guarantee protects and against what.
  2. A citizen who acted knowing a penalty of ten years cannot complain of receiving eight.
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B. Non-retroactivity protects advance notice of offences, which a milder subsequent law does not undermine

Why

Because the guarantee is one-directional by design. It exists so that nobody is punished for conduct they could not have known was forbidden, or more heavily than the law then announced. A later law that reduces the penalty offends neither concern, which is why Article 2.2 CP makes it retroactive even against a final judgment.

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